
I mean close but its actually even simpler. Gun control in this country is solely for the oppression of minorities, seen at the founding with George III's arms bans on colonists, after the founding with colonists arms bans on Indians and Blacks, over prohibition with the arms bans intended to affect alcohol sellers (NFA/GCA).
I just want to say too, I think it's equally stupid to act as if the ownership of guns is the sole determinant of school shootings. This country existed with gun rights for hundreds of years before school shootings became an issue, hell you used to be able to buy a full auto from a SEARS catalog and even then this shit wasn't a problem.
It’s not the sole but it is one of the main factors. Most guns involved in crime in general are stolen from gun owners. Also true this country existed with gun rights for years but you are wrong. Even during that time gun deaths were extremely high. Crime was higher back then so it’s be foolish to think that gun deaths were lower.
What makes development index less important of a factor than gun rights? I'd argue that since you can only have these findings among developed countries, and we are comparing ourselves to nations hundreds or thousands of years older than us that have consistently had lower crime rates since our conception, it may be an issue of development and not our rights.
America in comparison is not as developed or geographically well working in policing or crime prevention. European police get better and longer training than our cops, the population density is double ours which means crimes are going to be committed closer together to each other, and Europe has more robust safety nets against poverty.
There isn’t a European country with a higher violent crime rate than us. France has the highest violent crime while still being lower. Also stabbings in the US is still higher than Britain. Also gun deaths in European countries were higher than what they were before their reforms. That is due to legislation. Even European nations struggle with wealth inequality.
My point is that you can say that any event solely caused the lower rates in crime, but what seems like a much more reasonable explanation to me than a single piece of legislation bringing down crime rates like that is that these countries had a longer time to develop their systems of policing/crime prevention and made them more effective with that extra time.