
1. Her age is debated, it’s not in the Quran (proven fact) it’s in a secondary book that contains errors and some but not all Muslims believe in that book. 2. What is not debatable is she was a women not a girl (Islam defines a women as someone that has a period) and only women can marry, which would be odd at 6 3. Her age isn’t known by anyone they didn’t keep record of birthdates that far back. But based on her older sister and major battles that were recorded, her marriage age is estimated
Slavery was also common in those times, yet it was Christians who ended it thousands of years later based on new understanding of God’s eternal character. Biblical principles and natural law can allow us to reject pedophilia, but those who hold to the Islamic Hadiths must reconcile that their prophet (a perfect human) had sex with a 9 year old girl
Btw, recent research (seems to be based on pattern analysis to trace who said what) shows that the idea of Aisha being 6 or 9 likely came from an unreliable source almost 150 years after and 1000 miles away from the actual marriage https://newlinesmag.com/essays/oxford-study-sheds-light-on-muhammad-underage-wife-aisha/
While 18 is the general age of majority for marriage in the U.S., child marriage remains legal in 34 states, often allowing teens as young as 15–17 to marry with parental or judicial consent. Four states—California, Mississippi, New Mexico, and Oklahoma—have no statutory minimum age, allowing marriage at any age with court approval.
Christians ended slavery. Atheists never would have done that. The topic of slavery in the Bible is too complex for me to waste in a yik yak thread but there are interesting debates online. I’d reccomend the YouTube video “Slavery in the Bible: Atheist-Christian Dialogue (Trent Horn, Gavin Ortlund, Josh Bowen, Kipp Davis)”
I wouldn’t judge Mozart because of how an amateur pianist played his piece. In the same way, God’s eternal character and genius remains the same, but there are Christians who fail to understand it. God’s morality must be judged separately from how a current small minority of “Christians” think
I’m saying that the opinion of modern scholars seems to be that in some cases, the parts of some hadiths don’t hold up or don’t seem accurate. Traditionalists still treat them as second only to the Quran, so there is some conflict here. Aisha is usually cited as 6 or 9 in Sunni circles btw, but Shiites disagree. That’s where the sectarian conflict comes in
First off, the slavery of the Bible is extremely different from the slavery you might imagine. I can see you are using AI recommended lines of reasoning so please engage in the material instead of posting AI. That Exodus passage isn’t about forcing people into slavery; it’s their own choice to sell themselves. What we see here is the Law of Sale. It’s like saying, children didn’t consent to be adopted by other family, and therefore the Law of adoption is to be blamed.
To be between 16-19. 4. A lot of scholars interpret her being 6 years into marriage age and not literally 6 years old. 5. She was previously married and widowed before this marriage 6. People didn’t live long back then 1500 years ago and married much younger, regardless of religion. 1500 years from now women will get periods at 20 and adults will be 30 and they will all call us pedos for losing it in high school
That’s a direct excerpt from the bible. I didn’t ask you to justify the verse. Answer, yes or no do you acknowledge the distinction? God is telling people to own children as property of indentured servants; but the children can’t consent to being owned as property of the “master” You said that didn’t happen; the bible states otherwise.
What do you think my question is in relation to? Repeat the full question back to me I think you’re lost. I’ve read the full text. God explicitly said that children would be born as property if the parents who did consent to being slaves, had children while working for him. You said that didn’t happen, you’re objectively incorrect.
i think the point of OP’s argument is you can’t claim moral superiority because “christian’s ended slavery” when they were the ones that also started it. you can’t claim moral superiority for fixing a problem when the exact same scripture was used to promote it that’s like a group of people setting a forest on fire, some members of that same group put it out and then claim that the group is morally superior because they put out the fire
also no one abrahamic religion is morally superior from the other good things have been done in the name of each, just as atrocious things have been done in the name of each as well and each scripture talks about peace and love as well as the justification/promotion of violence and harm