
My interpretation of this passage is that 28 and 29 are referring to premarital sex while the previous ones refer to rape. The punishments make much more sense in this context (someone accused of rape put to death, whereas someone accused of premarital sex must pay the father of the woman they had sex with and marry her). We are also not bound strictly by old testament laws, the new testament is a new covenant, for instance I may have pork for breakfast today.
23 If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; 24 Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour's wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you.
25 But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die. 26 But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter: 27 For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her.
28 If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; 29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.
I understand that interpretation, I like it a lot more, but I don’t think it is correct as they understood it at the time. The words are very clear that the distinction between 23-27 are for engaged women (where another man had already paid the father for the daughter) in different places (the city being harsher bc that implies the woman was consenting) Whereas 28-29 are for unengaged women whose fathers hadn’t been paid for the daughter’s marriage yet, hence the financial reparations only.
The clearest argument against this would be the difference in the use of the Hebrew words in these verses to refer to the act, 23-27 all use chazaq which directly implies physical force, whereas 28 and 29 use the word tapas, which still means to take/seize, but doesn't directly imply the use of physical force.
Tapas is less forceful yes, but it’s more inclusive than hazaq. Tapas could therefore include both consensual and nonconsensual relations. I.e, there was no difference in the old law between a man and unengaged woman lying together consensually or not, bc the object of concern was the woman’s virginity not her trauma or lacktherof
But yeah, there’s 2,000-4,000 years of mankinds politics, wars, sins, etc influencing our understanding of gods spoken word. I find it difficult to believe, given the nature of humankind, that we have an accurate understanding today. I think it’s critically important to consider what society was like then, what they valued, what drove the economy, who were their enemies, etc