
Jesus is very clear. The term “Pedophilia” is much older than “homosexuality”. There is absolutely no debate that two women or two men having a sexual encounter, is not nearly as harmful and disgusting as am adult taking advantage of a child in a sexual way. Jesus goes in depth about every other sin, why on earth would he “vaguely” mention pedophilia? The Bible unfortunately has been manipulated by man, it was always pedophilia that Jesus condemned.
With all due respect, there’s no evidence whatsoever to suggest that the Bible was manipulated in the way you’re implying. And yes, Jesus did condemn pedophilia—there just wasn’t a word for it back then in the same way there is now. Two things can be true at once though: Jesus condemned sexual activity outside of a monogamous, heterosexual marriage, including and especially pedophilia.
There is actually lost of evidence that the Bible has been manipulated. The current Bible we read is missing like 10 Books. In the Bible there is no mention of sexual activity towards children being condemned, that is simply a fact. If you can find a verse that directly condemns sexual activity towards children then I will gladly apologize and say im misinformed.
How about “If in the open country a man meets a young woman … and the man seizes her and lies with her, then only the man … shall die.” or “This is the will of God, your sanctification: that you abstain from sexual immorality (porneia) …”? For context, porneia is a catch-all for all exploitative sexual activity.
Deuteronomy 22 is talking about sexual assault towards engaged women. The full text is “But if in the open country a man meets a young woman who is betrothed” (betrothed means engaged). And the second quote doesn’t directly call out pedophilia, however even with that second quote, Jesus still has different passages dedicated to purely adultery so the point still remains where is the direct passage calling out Pedophilia?